The well-being of American Indian and Alaska Native (AI/AN) children and their families is directly connected to the relationship they have with their culture, extended families, and tribal communities. Federal and state child welfare policies and practices have sometimes not well understood or supported these relationships by not recognizing the unique qualities of AI/AN culture and the benefits of nurturing these relationships. Describe the loss of Traditional family structures, values, and roles among American Indian/Alaskan Native families.

Answers

Answer 1

American Indian and Alaska Native (AI/AN) families have been affected by various factors leading to the loss of traditional family structures, values, and roles.

These factors have resulted in the displacement of AI/AN families from their homes and communities, loss of cultural and historical knowledge, and disconnection from extended families and tribal communities.:1. Relocation Program: The Relocation Program was a federal government policy that aimed to assimilate AI/AN families into mainstream society by relocating them from their reservations to urban areas.

This program led to the loss of traditional family structures and support systems since most families moved away from their extended families, communities, and cultural tradation.2. Boarding Schools: AI/AN children were removed from their homes and placed in boarding schools, where they were forced to abandon their language, culture, and traditions.

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Related Questions

Jameson works at a gas station during the graveyard shift. He has worked there for fifteen years and you have only ever seen him running the store alone, very late at night. Once you asked him how he passes the time, and he just shrugged and didn't respond. Another time you asked him if working all night was ever difficult for his family and he said, "don't have any, don't want any." Which personality disorder best fits Jameson? A. Avoidant B. Antisocial C. Schizoid
D. Borderline

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From the given scenario, the personality disorder that best fits Jameson is Schizoid. The Schizoid personality disorder is a long-term pattern of detachment from social relationships. Jameson works at a gas station during the graveyard shift. He has worked there for fifteen years and you have only ever seen him running the store alone, very late at night.

Jameson is Detached from the social relationships and is content with his isolation and detachment. Schizoid people tend to be independent and appear cold and indifferent. They do not usually express strong emotions. They have very few friends, social interactions, and sometimes prefer being alone. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others, failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, and irritability and aggressiveness. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by mood instability, fear of abandonment, impulsivity, and unstable interpersonal relationships. Thus, the correct option is C. Schizoid.

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When explaining your view, you need to be very specific. Do you believe abortion is never justified? Always justified? Sometimes justified? In what types of cases is it morally permissible and what types of cases is it not? Be detailed. Use examples.
1. Supporting your view with reasons means explaining why you hold the view you do. As you do this, it is important that you base your view on a general ethical principle of some sort (or more than one principle - but at least one). It can be one of the principles we studied in normative ethical theory, or another principle you found elsewhere, or developed yourself. Here is a one way to structure this portion of your paper.
2. Begin with a brief statement of your position. For example, "I will argue that abortion is justified in cases when the mother's life is in danger, but in no other cases" --or whatever your view is.
Then explain the general ethical principle you will use to support your view. To explain it, state the principle itself (this should be no more than one sentence), and then illustrate how it applies to real-life situations by providing at least one, and preferably two, examples that show what kinds of choices the principle supports or prohibits. Use examples that are not about abortion. Your argument will be much stronger if you can show how your view about abortion is rooted in a broader, consistent ethical perspective that applies to many different types of cases. Note: You are not required to use one of the ethical principles we have studied in class. This is your view, so you should use whatever principle(s) you think are true.
3. After you have explained and illustrated the general principle, show how it applies to abortion. It might apply in different ways to different types of scenarios. Discuss these scenarios and explain exactly how the principle applies in each one.

Answers

I believe that abortion is sometimes justified, depending on the specific circumstances. It is essential to consider the principle of bodily autonomy, which states that individuals have the right to make decisions about their own bodies and reproductive health. This principle acknowledges the importance of a person's autonomy and their ability to control what happens to their own body.

However, it is important to recognize that the right to bodily autonomy is not absolute and may be limited in certain situations. For example, if the mother's life is in immediate danger due to the pregnancy, it may be morally permissible to consider abortion as a means to save her life. In such cases, the principle of preserving life takes precedence over the principle of bodily autonomy. The value placed on preserving the mother's life aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes promoting the well-being and preventing harm to individuals.

Additionally, there may be instances where the fetus has severe abnormalities or medical conditions that would result in significant suffering if carried to term. In such cases, the principle of minimizing suffering comes into play. Allowing the option of abortion can be seen as a compassionate choice that prevents the fetus from experiencing unnecessary pain and distress.

On the other hand, there are cases where it may not be morally permissible to justify abortion. For instance, if the pregnancy is solely unwanted due to inconvenience or personal preference, it may be difficult to argue that the principle of bodily autonomy outweighs the potential rights and interests of the developing fetus. In these situations, alternative options such as adoption or support systems could be explored.

In conclusion, the moral permissibility of abortion depends on the specific circumstances and the application of ethical principles such as bodily autonomy, the preservation of life, and the minimization of suffering. By considering these principles, we can navigate the complexities of abortion and strive to make informed and compassionate decisions.

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What curricular reality is a challenge for many psychology majors? A. The majority of courses will be about science rather than clinical issues.
B. The statistical requirements in the major are not very challenging.
C. Students do not get to take methods courses until graduate school. D. All students are required to take abnormal and other clinical courses.

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The curricular reality that is a challenge for many psychology majors is that the majority of courses will be about science rather than clinical issues. Option A is the correct answer.

Psychology is the scientific discipline concerned with the analysis of behavior and mental processes. This includes an exploration of the nature of human behavior, brain functioning, and the influence of social and cultural factors. Psychologists use scientific methods to conduct research into these topics, making use of a variety of tools and techniques.

Psychologists can work in a variety of fields, including education, business, health, and mental health.Curricular Reality in Psychology MajorA psychology major is a popular choice for students interested in pursuing a career in psychology or related fields. However, it is also a difficult and challenging discipline, with many students struggling to keep up with the coursework and requirements.

There are several curricular realities that can be challenging for many psychology majors, including: The majority of courses will be about science rather than clinical issues (Option A).Many students are surprised to discover that the majority of courses in a psychology major are focused on scientific research rather than clinical practice.

While courses in abnormal psychology and other clinical topics are certainly part of the curriculum, students will also be required to take courses in research methods, statistics, and other scientific areas. This can be challenging for students who are more interested in the practical applications of psychology than the scientific underpinnings.The statistical requirements in the major are not very challenging (Option B).

While some students may find the statistical requirements in a psychology major to be relatively easy, others may struggle with this aspect of the curriculum. Statistics is an essential tool for psychologists, and students will be expected to master a range of statistical methods and techniques in order to conduct research in the field. This can be challenging for students who are not particularly strong in math or who struggle with abstract concepts.Students do not get to take methods courses until graduate school (Option C).

While it is true that some graduate programs in psychology require students to take methods courses, this is not universally true. Many undergraduate psychology programs do offer courses in research methods and techniques, which can be very helpful for students who are interested in pursuing graduate studies in psychology or related fields.All students are required to take abnormal and other clinical courses (Option D).

Thus, While courses in abnormal psychology and other clinical topics are certainly part of the curriculum, students will also be required to take courses in research methods, statistics, and other scientific areas. This can be challenging for students who are more interested in the practical applications of psychology than the scientific underpinnings.

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All of the following are core job characteristics, EXCEPT:
Job feedback
Autonomy
Skill variety
Skill identity
Task significance

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The job characteristics theory (JCT) is a psychological theory that describes the interaction between individuals and the aspects of their jobs. JCT explains that different job characteristics lead to increased job satisfaction, motivation, and performance.

The five core job characteristics are: Skill variety: Refers to the degree to which a job necessitates a variety of activities that require different skills and talents. Task identity: Refers to the degree to which a job necessitates completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. Task significance: Refers to the degree to which a job has an impact on society or other people. Autonomy: Refers to the degree to which an individual has control over the planning, execution, and completion of work. Job feedback: Refers to the degree to which an individual receives information about their job performance.

The core job characteristics provide the foundation for the Job Characteristics Model, which predicts the degree to which individuals will be motivated by their jobs. In conclusion, Job feedback is not one of the five core job characteristics.

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The inability to move your foot is a result of damage/injury to nerves arising from which plexus?

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The inability to move your foot is a result of damage/injury to nerves arising from the sacral plexus. The sacral plexus is one of the five plexuses in the body that gives rise to the sciatic nerve which is the largest nerve in the body.

It is located in the pelvic area and it arises from the L4 to S4 vertebrae, specifically the anterior rami of L4 to S4 and some fibers from L5. The sacral plexus innervates the posterior thigh, most of the lower leg and the entire foot along with the perineum.

The sciatic nerve is responsible for the movement of muscles of the posterior thigh and lower leg which includes plantar flexion (movement of the foot away from the body) and dorsiflexion (movement of the foot towards the body). Damage or injury to the sacral plexus can lead to a variety of symptoms including weakness or numbness in the affected area, inability to move the foot, and loss of sensation among other symptoms.

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This is a Multiple Answers Question, meaning that more than one answer may be correct. Select ALL the answers you think are correct.
Why did King Philip leave the Crusading army, in Palestine, so early in the action?
He had been sick almost since his arrival, and honestly felt unfit for further action.
He was tired of playing "second fiddle" in what, by now, had become Richard the Lionheart's crusade.
He was planning to move against Richard's lands in France, while the latter was still engaged in Palestine.

Answers

He had been sick almost since his arrival, and honestly felt unfit for further action and He was tired of playing "second fiddle" in what, by now, had become Richard the Lionheart's crusade are correct.

Correct option is B and C.

King Philip's early departure from the Crusading army in Palestine was due to a combination of several factors. Physically, he had been sick since his arrival, and was honestly unfit for further action. He was also tired of playing "second fiddle" in what had become Richard the Lionheart's crusade.

On top of that, he wanted to take advantage of the situation and move against Richard's lands in France while the latter was still engaged in Palestine. As a result, King Philip chose to leave the Crusading army in Palestine and pursue his own agenda. In doing so, he was able to achieve his intended goals without having to face the formidable forces of Richard the Lionheart.

Ultimately, Philip's decision to leave early provided him an opportunity to tackle a different kind of challenge, and set the stage for an entirely new kind of conflict.

Correct option is B and C.

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How did the Franco-German War change the history of Europe?"

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The Franco-German War of 1870-1871, also known as the Franco-Prussian War, was a significant event that had a significant impact on the history of Europe. In this war, the German states, led by Prussia, defeated France, leading to changes in the balance of power and the unification of Germany under the leadership of Prussia.

The Franco-German War's impact on Europe was multifaceted and far-reaching. First, the war altered the balance of power in Europe, leading to the rise of Germany as a major European power and France's decline. The newly unified Germany became the dominant force in Central Europe, while France lost territories such as Alsace and Lorraine.Secondly, the Franco-German War was a catalyst for the formation of alliances among European states, leading to a shift in the political landscape of Europe. France sought alliances with Russia and Great Britain, forming the Triple Entente, while Germany formed the Triple Alliance with Austria-Hungary and Italy.Thirdly, the Franco-German War also contributed to the tensions that led to World War I. The territorial disputes between France and Germany, as well as the alliances formed after the war, created a volatile political situation in Europe that made the outbreak of a major conflict almost inevitable.Overall, the Franco-German War was a transformative event in the history of Europe. It shifted the balance of power, changed the political landscape, and set the stage for the conflicts that would engulf Europe in the twentieth century.

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Question 3: Given the passage below (5 Marks)
"University education should be provided free of charge. Every country needs a constant supply of people capable of fulfilling important jobs like doctors, engineers, and teachers, and so the country as a whole should meet the cost of training them. "
Find the intermediate conclusions in this passage. Explain why you think they are the intermediate conclusions.

Answers

The intermediate conclusions in the passage are that university education should be provided free of charge and that the country as a whole should bear the cost of training professionals like doctors, engineers, and teachers.

The passage argues that university education should be provided free of charge. This is an intermediate conclusion because it is based on the premise that every country needs a constant supply of professionals in important fields. The passage assumes that by providing free education, more individuals will be able to pursue higher education, which will result in a larger pool of qualified professionals in fields like medicine, engineering, and education.

Additionally, the passage concludes that the cost of training these professionals should be borne by the country as a whole. This is another intermediate conclusion because it follows from the premise that every country needs a constant supply of individuals capable of fulfilling important jobs. The passage suggests that the country has a collective responsibility to invest in the education and training of professionals to ensure the availability of skilled workers in vital sectors.

By presenting these intermediate conclusions, the passage supports the overall argument that university education should be provided free of charge and funded by the country. The reasoning is based on the premise that a constant supply of skilled professionals is essential for the country's well-being and that the cost of training them should be a collective responsibility.

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when a traffic light turns yellow,you speed up and make it through the intersection before it turns red an average of every fourth time you do it.
which schedule of reinforcement is being described here?
a) fixed ratio
b) variable ratio
c) fixed interval
d) variable interval

Answers

The schedule of reinforcement that is being described when a traffic light turns yellow, and a driver speeds up and makes it through the intersection before it turns red is variable ratio. Correct option is B.

Reinforcement is a term used in psychology to describe a process in which a behaviour is strengthened. Reinforcement can be either positive or negative. Positive reinforcement refers to providing a reward or positive consequence for behaviour, while negative reinforcement involves removing a negative consequence when a certain behaviour is displayed.

Schedule of reinforcement A schedule of reinforcement is a pattern in which a reinforcement is delivered following a certain behaviour or response. There are four types of reinforcement schedules, which are fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, and variable interval. Therefore, the schedule of reinforcement being described is variable ratio.

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Which of the following is a risk factor for trauma survivors developing PTSD?
low scores on neuroticism
above-average cognitive skills
lack of social support
excessive control over one’s actions and thoughts

Answers

The correct option is lack of social support. The lack of social support is a risk factor for trauma survivors developing PTSD.

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that affects individuals who have gone through a traumatic event such as a natural disaster, combat, or sexual assault. While anyone who has been through trauma may develop PTSD, certain risk factors can increase the likelihood of its occurrence. One such risk factor is a lack of social support. A social support system comprises friends, family, community, and medical professionals who can provide individuals with emotional and practical support after trauma.

The lack of a social support system can lead to feelings of isolation, which can exacerbate symptoms of PTSD. It can also reduce the likelihood of an individual seeking treatment for their condition, which can prolong and worsen symptoms. Therefore, healthcare providers should consider the role of social support in an individual's life while diagnosing and treating PTSD.

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Mrs. Kubota spends a lot of time stroking, cuddling, and rocking her infant son and seems to be highly aware of the baby's actions and needs. Mr. Kubota worries that his wife's interactions with the baby may eventually lead the child to (a) cry easily when frustrated, (b) fearfully cling to his mother, (c) become unfriendly toward other people, and (d) become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings. Describe research on social development that supports or refutes each of the father's concerns.

Answers

Mrs. Kubota spends a lot of time stroking, cuddling, and rocking her infant son, and seems to be highly aware of the baby's actions and needs.

The father, Mr. Kubota, worries that his wife's interactions with the baby may eventually lead the child to

(a) cry easily when frustrated,

(b) fearfully cling to his mother,

(c) become unfriendly toward other people, and

(d) become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings.

Research on social development that supports or refutes each of the father's concerns are:

a) Cry easily when frustrated: Refuted Research has found that parental responsiveness is associated with the development of emotional regulation. When parents respond sensitively and consistently to infants' emotional expressions, infants become more effective at regulating their emotions (Bowlby, 1969; Carlson & Sroufe, 1995; Cohn & Tronick, 1988; Thompson, 1994).

c) Become unfriendly toward other people: Supported Infants who do not experience positive interaction with people other than their mother may be more reserved or less friendly toward other people (Harris, 1991; Scarr & McCartney, 1983).d) Become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings: Supported Infants who receive little stimulation or interaction from caregivers may become inactive, apathetic, and disinterested in their surroundings (Harris, 1991; Scarr & McCartney, 1983).

Thus, the research shows that the first two concerns of Mr. Kubota are refuted, and the other two concerns are supported by research on social development.

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What specific topic would you use for your informative speech?
Who would be your audience? Where, specifically, would you
research?

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To determine the specific topic for an informative speech, several factors need consideration, including the interests of the audience, the purpose of the speech, and the audience's previous knowledge of the subject matter. The informative speech aims to inform the audience about a particular topic in an engaging and informative way.

The following is a sample informative speech topic, audience, and research area:Topic: Artificial Intelligence Audience: University StudentsResearch Area: Library and Online databases. Artificial intelligence (AI) is a popular topic among university students. The audience already has basic knowledge of the subject matter, and they are willing to learn more about it.

Furthermore, AI is an exciting topic with vast research possibilities. Additionally, the audience can relate to the subject matter, which will make the speech more engaging.Research: To research for the informative speech, the library and online databases can be used. The library has various books, journals, and magazines with relevant information about artificial intelligence.

Online databases like JSTOR, Science Direct, and Scholar are also great research areas for gathering relevant and reliable information about AI. In summary, selecting a specific topic for an informative speech is crucial.

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Two rods are made of substance x. both are rubbed with substance y and then interact by ________________ each other if either of them is free to move.

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The two rods made of substance x, after rubbing them with substance y, will repel each other if either of them is free to move.

When two rods made of substance x are rubbed with substance y, they become charged, which means that the electrons on them are redistributed, resulting in a charge on the rods. If either of the rods is free to move, they will repel each other because the like charges will repel each other.The reason the rods repel each other is that rubbing the rods with substance y causes electrons to be transferred from one rod to the other, causing each rod to acquire a net charge. Because the two rods have the same charge after being rubbed with substance y, they will repel each other when they come into contact. The force with which the two rods repel each other is directly proportional to the amount of charge on each rod and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

An electron is an adversely charged subatomic molecule that can be either bound to an iota or free (not bound). One of the three primary types of particles found within an atom is an electron that is bound to it; the other two are protons and neutrons. The nucleus of an atom is made up of protons and electrons.

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Which of the following is an example of redirection? Group of answer choices
giving a cookie to a crying child.
putting an infant in time out.
giving a ball to a child who is throwing a toy car.
distracting a child who is experiencing separation anxiety.

Answers

An example of redirection is "distracting a child who is experiencing separation anxiety". Option d is correct.

Redirection is a method for helping young children understand and deal with their emotions, which involves diverting their attention to another activity.

In the context of child behaviour, redirection is when a child's interest is redirected away from the activity or situation that is causing the behaviour that requires correction towards another activity that is more desirable or acceptable.

A child who is crying because they are not allowed to play with their toys might be redirected by offering a different activity, such as a game or a puzzle. This can be effective in calming the child and diverting their attention away from the original cause of their distress, and it also encourages positive behaviour.

Therefore, d is correct.

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This/these researcher(s) demonstrated that fear could be classically conditioned in humans and that fear can generaliz from one thing (a
white rat) to similar things (white furry things).
O B.F. Skinner
© Watson
O pavlov
O Watson and Raynor

Answers

The researchers that demonstrated that fear could be classically conditioned in humans and that fear can generalize from one thing (a white rat) to similar things (white furry things) are Watson and Raynor.

Watson and Raynor are the psychologists who performed the “Little Albert” experiment. They used the principles of classical conditioning to prove that fear could be conditioned in humans. In this experiment, a young boy named Albert was presented with a white rat, which he showed no fear towards. However, the researchers began making loud noises whenever the rat was presented to the boy. After several repetitions of this, the boy began to show fear towards the rat even without the loud noises.

This fear also generalized to other white, furry objects, demonstrating the concept of generalization. In conclusion, Watson and Raynor demonstrated that fear could be classically conditioned in humans and that fear can generalize from one thing (a white rat) to similar things (white furry things). They conducted the Little Albert experiment and used classical conditioning to prove that fear could be conditioned in humans.

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How has the concept of science (what it is, what we use it for, and how we conduct it) changed from Antiquity to the twentieth century? Give specific examples from your course material to support your answer.(200 words)

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The concept of science, its purpose, and the way it is conducted has undergone significant changes from Antiquity to the twentieth century.

In Antiquity, science was often intertwined with philosophy and natural philosophy. Ancient Greek philosophers, such as Aristotle, focused on observing and categorizing the natural world. Their scientific pursuits were rooted in theoretical speculation and deduction rather than empirical investigation.

For example, Aristotle's understanding of physics was based on his philosophical principles of causality, teleology, and the elements.

However, the scientific revolution of the seventeenth century brought about a paradigm shift in the concept of science. Empiricism and the use of systematic observation, experimentation, and measurement became integral to the scientific process. This shift was exemplified by the works of scientists like Galileo Galilei and Isaac Newton. Galileo's use of the telescope to observe celestial bodies and his experimental approach challenged traditional Aristotelian views. Newton's laws of motion and universal gravitation were derived through mathematical calculations and empirical evidence.

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The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is used as the discount rate to evaluate various capital budgeting projects. However, it is important to realize that the WACC is an oppropriate discount ra

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WACC is an appropriate discount rate for capital budgeting projects.

What are the major causes of climate change and their impacts on the environment?

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is commonly used as the discount rate in capital budgeting to assess the feasibility of investment projects.

It represents the average cost of financing the company's operations, considering the proportional weights of each source of capital, including debt and equity.

By using the WACC as the discount rate, the present value of future cash flows generated by a project can be determined, allowing for comparisons and decision-making.

However, it is important to note that the WACC is an estimate and is subject to certain assumptions and limitations.

It serves as a useful tool for evaluating projects, but other factors such as risk and market conditions should also be considered in the decision-making process.

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Research on the attitudes of twins suggests :
that genetics are not useful in predicting the attitudes different people will hold.
the attitudes of identical twins are more similar than the attitudes of fraternal twins.
the attitudes of twins who are reared apart from one another are more dissimilar than the attitudes of twins raised together in the same household.
that the first-born twin is likely to be more conservative than the second-born twin, even when their births are only separated by minutes.

Answers

Research on the attitudes of twins suggests that the attitudes of identical twins are more similar than the attitudes of fraternal twins. The statement that describes the research on the attitudes of twins is that the attitudes of identical twins are more similar than the attitudes of fraternal twins.

This is the finding that comes from twin studies that are often used in behavioral genetics to investigate the roles of genetic and environmental influences on behavior. These studies use monozygotic or identical twins and dizygotic or fraternal twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes. They are formed when one fertilized egg splits into two embryos.

Dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, share only 50% of their genes. They are formed when two separate eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm.Twin studies show that monozygotic twins, who share identical genes, are more similar in behavior and attitudes than dizygotic twins, who share only half of their genes. This suggests that genetics plays an important role in shaping attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors.

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How a counselor should analyze and explain ethical and cultural
strategies for promoting resilience, optimum development, and
wellness in middle childhood.

Answers

Counselors should use empathy, active listening, respect, privacy, confidentiality, and understanding of ethics and culture to promote resilience, optimum development, and wellness in middle childhood.

A counselor is a professional who has knowledge and skills in managing mental health concerns. An ethical counselor should be able to explain ethical and cultural strategies that promote resilience, optimum development, and wellness in middle childhood.

Below are strategies that counselors can use to promote resilience, optimum development, and wellness in middle childhood: 1. Empathy: Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of others. A counselor can promote resilience in middle childhood by showing empathy to their clients. By understanding the clients’ feelings, the counselor can provide relevant solutions to their issues.

2. Active Listening: Active listening is a technique where the listener provides feedback to show they are paying attention. A counselor can use active listening to promote resilience in middle childhood by allowing the client to express themselves without any interruptions. This way, the counselor can provide useful feedback to help the client deal with their issues.

3. Ethics and CultureThe counselor should analyze and explain ethical and cultural strategies that promote resilience, optimum development, and wellness in middle childhood. By understanding ethical and cultural issues, the counselor can provide a better solutions to their clients.

4. Respect: Counselors should show respect for their clients. By doing so, the client can open up and trust the counselor. The counselor can then provide the best solutions to help the client.

5. Privacy and Confidentiality: Counselors should respect their client’s privacy and maintain confidentiality. By doing so, the client will feel comfortable opening up to the counselor without fear of being exposed. The counselor can then provide the best solutions to the client’s issues.

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Cognitive neuropsychologists regard the finding of a double dissociation between short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM) as important because it shows that:

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The finding of a double dissociation between STM and LTM is important to cognitive neuropsychologists because it supports the existence of separate memory systems and provides valuable insights into the neural basis of memory. This understanding enhances our knowledge of how memory operates and how it can be affected in various neurological conditions, ultimately contributing to the development of more targeted interventions and treatments for memory disorders.

Cognitive neuropsychologists consider the discovery of a double dissociation between short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM) crucial because it provides evidence for the existence of separate memory systems with distinct cognitive processes. A double dissociation occurs when two different functions are impaired or preserved independently of each other in two different groups of individuals or under two different experimental conditions.

In the context of STM and LTM, a double dissociation would involve observing individuals who have intact STM but impaired LTM and vice versa. This finding suggests that STM and LTM are supported by separate neural mechanisms and cognitive processes, which can be selectively affected by different factors or brain damage.

The significance of this double dissociation is twofold. Firstly, it supports the notion that STM and LTM are not unitary constructs, but rather represent distinct memory systems. This challenges earlier views that memory operates as a single entity and highlights the complexity of memory processes.

Secondly, the double dissociation provides valuable insights into the underlying neural basis of memory. By examining individuals with selective impairments in either STM or LTM, researchers can identify brain regions or networks specifically associated with each memory system. This helps to refine our understanding of the brain structures and mechanisms involved in different aspects of memory processing.

In summary, the finding of a double dissociation between STM and LTM is important to cognitive neuropsychologists because it supports the existence of separate memory systems and provides valuable insights into the neural basis of memory. This understanding enhances our knowledge of how memory operates and how it can be affected in various neurological conditions, ultimately contributing to the development of more targeted interventions and treatments for memory disorders.

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Which of the following is NOT a good definition of culture?
O A set of beliefs about another person's mind O The beliefs, customs, arts, etc. of a particular society, group, place or time O A way of thinking, behaving, or working that exists in a place or organization O A particular society that has its own beliefs, ways of life, art, etc

Answers

The best option in this case is option A. Culture is an extensive concept that encompasses beliefs, customs, arts, values, and practices of a particular society, group, place or time. The concept can be explained as a way of thinking, behaving, or working that exists in an organization or society. However, not all definitions of culture may be appropriate, and in this context, option A is not an accurate definition of culture.

Option A states that culture is a set of beliefs about another person's mind. While this definition touches on the concept of beliefs, it does not accurately capture the broader picture of culture. Culture involves the shared beliefs and practices of people who share a common way of life. It goes beyond individual perspectives and beliefs, and as such, option A is not a good definition of culture. It is more of an individualistic approach that does not take into account the broader context of culture. In conclusion, culture refers to the beliefs, customs, arts, values, and practices of a particular society, group, place, or time. While culture can be explained as a way of thinking, behaving, or working that exists in an organization or society, it is not a set of beliefs about another person's mind. Therefore, option A is not a good definition of culture.

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"Most of those who knowingly and needlessly endanger their lives are not fully rational. Thus Zoron the motorcycle racer is not fully rational, because Zoron is knowingly and unnecessarily endangering his life" is an example of
Question 11 options:
A. causal argument
B. enumerative induction
C. statistical syllogism
D. analogy
.

Answers

The given statement is an example of a causal argument.

It presents a cause-and-effect relationship by suggesting that individuals who knowingly and needlessly endanger their lives are not fully rational. The specific example of Zoron, the motorcycle racer, is used to support this argument, stating that he is knowingly and unnecessarily endangering his life and therefore not fully rational. The argument relies on the premise that rational individuals would not engage in such behaviors that put their lives at risk without a compelling reason. This causal argument attempts to establish a connection between irrational behavior and the act of endangering one's life without a valid justification.

In this case, the argument aims to demonstrate that Zoron's behavior is indicative of him not being fully rational based on the premise that knowingly and needlessly endangering one's life is not a rational decision. However, the overall validity and soundness of the argument would depend on the supporting evidence, assumptions, and the broader context in which it is presented.

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In Lefebvre's theory of everyday life, WHICH kind of space reflects the routine spatial practices that create social space?
Question 1 options:
a. Everyday Space
b. Perceived Space
c. Conceived Space
d. Lived Space

Answers

In Lefebvre's theory of everyday life, lived space reflects the routine spatial practices that create social space. Correct option is D.

Lefebvre's theory of everyday life is a concept that examines how everyday life is shaped by routines and practices that create social space. According to this theory, the everyday is a socially constructed space where people engage in practices that are shaped by the larger social and cultural context.

Therefore, the concept of social space is essential to understanding how social relations are structured. In Lefebvre's theory of everyday life, lived space reflects the routine spatial practices that create social space. Lived space is the space where people engage in their everyday practices. It is the space that is shaped by the routines and habits of people as they go about their daily lives. Correct option is D.

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Answer each of these Five Questions in proper English paragraphs of at least 200 words. (That’s an average sized American-English Paragraph) There are no "formatting" requirements as such. Standard English Paragraphs are the format. If you use a quotation from the book a simple page number citation is fine. "(Pg. 92)" You don’t need to cite the author because all of your answers should come from material related to ONLY THIS BOOK. It’s not a research paper and I do not want material from other sources. I don’t care what some other historian, or editor says about this book I want YOUR answers to the questions. 1) The United States had no immigration laws at all until the Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882. That law was passed in response to a specific set of circumstances and attitudes toward Chinese workers. This book focuses on the second big immigration law in U.S. history; The Immigration Act of 1924. What was the perceived need for this law? And what was the framework which it incorporated in order to lower immigration numbers? How does this law fit in with everything else you know about the 1920s? Does it?

Answers

The Immigration Act of 1924 was driven by concerns over job competition, cultural preservation, and nativist sentiments. It established a quota system to lower immigration, favoring Western and Northern European immigrants. This law reflects the nativist attitudes and societal changes of the 1920s.

The Immigration Act of 1924, also known as the Johnson-Reed Act, was enacted in response to several perceived needs and attitudes prevalent in the United States at that time. One of the main concerns was the perceived threat to American jobs and wages due to the influx of immigrants, particularly from Southern and Eastern Europe. There was a prevailing belief that these immigrants were taking jobs away from native-born Americans and lowering wages. Additionally, there were concerns about preserving the cultural and ethnic homogeneity of the nation.The framework of the Immigration Act of 1924 aimed to significantly lower immigration numbers by implementing a quota system based on nationality. This system established numerical limits on immigration from specific countries, favoring immigrants from Western and Northern Europe while severely restricting those from Southern and Eastern Europe. The quotas were based on the percentage of each nationality already residing in the United States in 1890, a deliberate choice meant to favor older immigrant groups and limit the entry of newer ones.This law aligns with the broader context of the 1920s, which was characterized by a growing sense of nativism, nationalism, and xenophobia. The decade witnessed a resurgence of the Ku Klux Klan, which targeted not only African Americans but also Catholics, Jews, and immigrants. The red scare and fear of radicalism after World War I also fueled anti-immigrant sentiments. The Immigration Act of 1924 reflects these prevailing attitudes, as it aimed to restrict immigration and preserve what was perceived as the traditional American identity.Furthermore, the 1920s was a period of significant social and cultural change in the United States. It saw the rise of the "Roaring Twenties," marked by economic prosperity, urbanization, and the emergence of a new consumer culture. The restrictive immigration policy of the 1924 Act can be seen as an attempt to maintain stability and preserve the perceived social order amidst these rapid changes. It aimed to limit the influence of foreign cultures and protect the interests of native-born Americans in a rapidly evolving society.

In summary, the perceived need for the Immigration Act of 1924 stemmed from concerns about job competition, cultural preservation, and nativist sentiments. The framework of the law, with its quota system favoring Western and Northern European immigrants, was designed to lower immigration numbers and maintain the existing social fabric. The Act reflects the broader context of the 1920s, characterized by nativism, social change, and efforts to preserve a perceived American identity.

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Write an application letter to a ministry within the government
asking for a scholarship to study at a University.

Answers

Dear Sir/Madam, I am writing to humbly request a scholarship to study at the University. I am a highly motivated and passionate student who has consistently performed well in my studies.

I believe that with this scholarship, I will be able to further my education and gain the necessary skills to contribute to the development of our country. As you may be aware, education is one of the most important tools in the development of any nation.

By providing me with this scholarship, you will be helping to nurture the talents of a young student who is committed to making a positive difference in our society. I would like to express my sincere gratitude for taking the time to read my application. I would be honored to receive a scholarship from your esteemed Ministry and promise to work hard and make the most of this opportunity. Thank you for your consideration. Sincerely,[Your Name]

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a-b) Using Johnson's rule for 2-machine scheduling, the sequence is: Scheduled Order 1 = 2 3 4 5 7 Job c) For the schedule developed using Johnson's rule, the total length of time taken to complete th

Answers

The total length of time taken to complete the schedule developed using Johnson's rule is 21 units.

Johnson's rule is a method used for two-machine scheduling to determine the optimal sequence in which jobs should be processed. The rule minimizes the total completion time of all jobs. In this case, the scheduled order based on Johnson's rule is 2, 3, 4, 5, 7.

To calculate the total length of time taken to complete the schedule developed using Johnson's rule, we need to consider the processing times of each job on each machine. Let's assume the processing times for each job on Machine 1 and Machine 2 are as follows:

Job Machine 1 Machine 2

2 3 4 3 6 1 4 2 7 5 5 3 7 4 5

Now, we can calculate the completion time for each job in the scheduled order using the following formula:

Completion Time = Previous Job's Completion Time + Processing Time on the Current Machine

For the first job (Job 2): Completion Time = 0 (start time) + 3 (processing time on Machine 1) = 3

For the second job (Job 3): Completion Time = 3 (completion time of Job 2) + 4 (processing time on Machine 2) = 7

For the third job (Job 4): Completion Time = 7 (completion time of Job 3) + 2 (processing time on Machine 1) = 9

For the fourth job (Job 5): Completion Time = 9 (completion time of Job 4) + 7 (processing time on Machine 2) = 16

For the fifth job (Job 7): Completion Time = 16 (completion time of Job 5) + 5 (processing time on Machine 1) = 21

Therefore, the total length of time taken to complete the schedule developed using Johnson's rule is 21 units.

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Explain how you might incorporate the rhetorical strategies you
discussed above in your own writing in a future academic,
professional, or community context?

Answers

According to Aristotle, a speaker's capacity to persuade an audience depends on how successfully they engage that audience in three separate ways: through logos, ethos, and pathos.

Rhetorical strategies are important because they enable you to interact with and influence your audience. Rhetorical strategies are essential to efficient communication, whether you're speaking or writing.

Your message will be more persuasive and engaging as a result of their assistance in making you more approachable and connecting with your audience. In written works and speeches, it's customary to repeat syllables, words, or phrases to hold the audience's attention and make a point.

By presenting information that can be fact-checked (using numerous sources) and in-depth justifications to support crucial arguments, an author can engage an audience's intellect. A fantastic approach for an author to use logos is to offer a sound and impartial explanation of their position.

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Diogenes claimed that cause of human unhappiness is poverty.
Group of answer choices
True
False

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Diogenes was a Greek philosopher who believed that the cause of human unhappiness was not poverty, but rather the desire for material possessions and social status. He believed that people should live a simple and self-sufficient life, free from the constraints of society and its expectations.

Diogenes was known for his rejection of material wealth and his advocacy for a minimalist lifestyle. He famously lived in a barrel and owned only a few possessions. He believed that true happiness could be achieved through self-sufficiency and the pursuit of wisdom.

In summary, while poverty may be a contributing factor to human unhappiness, Diogenes believed that the root cause of unhappiness was the desire for material possessions and social status, rather than the lack of them.

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Aristotle and Mill both offer teleological ethical theories. True False

Answers

False. While both Aristotle and Mill propose ethical theories, they differ in their approach and philosophical foundations.

Aristotle's ethical theory is known as virtue ethics, which emphasizes the development of moral character and the cultivation of virtues to lead a good and fulfilling life. It is not inherently teleological, as it focuses on the virtues themselves rather than the end goal or consequences of actions. On the other hand, Mill's ethical theory, known as utilitarianism, is teleological in nature. It posits that the morality of an action is determined by its overall consequences and the maximization of happiness or utility for the greatest number of individuals. So, while Mill's theory is teleological, Aristotle's virtue ethics is not.

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The failure to see visible objects or events because one's
attention is focused elsewhere is known as
a.
feature detection
b.
top-down processing
c.
inattentional blindness
d.
perceptual set

Answers

The correct option is c. Inattentional blindness refers to a phenomenon where individuals fail to notice an unexpected stimulus that is in plain sight because their attention is directed elsewhere.

Inattentional blindness is a phenomenon that occurs when people fail to see visible objects or events when their attention is focused elsewhere. It can occur in various settings, including when driving, walking, or when engaged in other activities that require a high level of attention. The cause of inattentional blindness is thought to be due to the limited capacity of attention that the human brain has. It is also thought that our brain is wired to prioritize the processing of relevant information over irrelevant information. Therefore, if an individual's attention is focused on a specific task, they may not notice other stimuli that are not relevant to that task. Inattentional blindness has been studied extensively in various fields, including cognitive psychology and human factors engineering. It has significant implications for safety, particularly in contexts where attentional demands are high.

For instance, studies have shown that inattentional blindness is a major contributing factor in many accidents and incidents, such as traffic accidents and workplace accidents. To mitigate the effects of inattentional blindness, individuals can take steps to increase their situational awareness and minimize distractions. Training programs can also be developed to help individuals recognize and respond to unexpected stimuli in their environment.

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