Physicians diagnose and treat, nurses provide care, pharmacists dispense medications, and allied health professionals offer specialized services in healthcare delivery.
Roles and responsibilities in the delivery of care include:
Physicians: Diagnose and treat patients, prescribe medication, and provide medical expertise.
Nurses: Administer medications, monitor patients, provide patient care, and assist in medical procedures.
Pharmacists: Dispense medications, educate patients on drug usage, and ensure proper medication management.
Medical Technologists: Conduct laboratory tests, analyze samples, and provide accurate test results.
Allied Health Professionals: Include physical therapists, occupational therapists, and respiratory therapists who provide specialized care and rehabilitation.
Administrators: Oversee healthcare facilities, manage budgets, and ensure efficient operations.
Social Workers: Assist patients and their families with emotional and social support, connect them to community resources.
Caregivers: Provide direct care to patients, assist with activities of daily living, and offer companionship.
Patient Advocates: Ensure patients' rights are protected, help navigate healthcare systems, and provide support.
Support Staff: Include receptionists, housekeeping staff, and technicians who contribute to the smooth functioning of healthcare settings.
In the delivery of care, physicians play a central role by diagnosing illnesses, formulating treatment plans, and providing medical expertise.
Nurses are responsible for administering medications, monitoring patients' conditions, and assisting in medical procedures.
Pharmacists dispense medications, educate patients on proper drug usage, and ensure safe medication management. Together, these roles collaborate to deliver comprehensive and compassionate care to patients.
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A nurse with underlying health issues (NOT COVID) is assigned to work on a care unit for patients who have COVID-19. This could increase the risk of death for the nurse due to her underlying health issues. Using ethical decision-making, determine whether the nurse should continue to work on the assigned care unit.
1. Could the nurse fulfill their ethical obligations to provision 2 of the ANA Code of Ethics if they did not work on the assigned COVID unit? Explain your answer.
As a nurse, fulfilling ethical obligations is very important. To make an ethical decision in the scenario where a nurse with underlying health issues is assigned to work on a care unit for patients with COVID-19, we must apply ethical decision-making steps.
The steps are discussed as follows-
1. Identify the problem: The problem in this case is that the nurse with underlying health issues is at a higher risk of death if she works on the COVID-19 unit.
2. Gather information: The nurse needs to have all the information about the COVID-19 unit and the measures in place to ensure their safety.
3. Identify the ethical issues: In this case, the ethical issues are the nurse's duty to provide care and the nurse's right to protect her life.
4. Determine the values: The values involved here are patient-centered care and the nurse's health.
5. Explore alternatives: In this case, alternatives include whether the nurse should continue to work on the unit or not.
6. Act: The best course of action in this case is to not have the nurse work on the COVID-19 unit.
7. Evaluate the decision: The decision made in this case will be evaluated by ensuring that the nurse is still providing care to the patients and is not discriminated against due to her health condition.
A nurse with underlying health issues (NOT COVID) is assigned to work on a care unit for patients who have COVID-19. The nurse should not continue to work on the assigned care unit. The nurse's health is also important and should be considered when assigning duties. If the nurse with underlying health issues chooses not to work on the COVID unit, it may be considered ethical because provision 2 of the ANA Code of Ethics states that nurses have the duty to ensure their own health and safety while providing care.
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A broad term describing a progressive deterioration of intellectual function is: A. Dementia B. Mental health disorder C. Senility D. Schizophrenia
A broad term describing a progressive deterioration of intellectual function is Dementia.
Progressive deterioration of intellectual function is often a part of the normal ageing process. It is, however, not inevitable. Dementia is a broad term used to describe a progressive deterioration of intellectual function that interferes with daily living and activities.A person with dementia experiences an ongoing decline in their ability to remember, think, communicate, and reason, all of which interfere with daily living activities such as housekeeping, dressing, cooking, and personal care. The severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a progressive deterioration of intellectual function that interferes with daily living and activities. A person with dementia experiences an ongoing decline in their ability to remember, think, communicate, and reason, all of which interfere with daily living activities such as housekeeping, dressing, cooking, and personal care.The term "dementia" is derived from the Latin word "dementia," which means "out of one's mind." Dementia is a syndrome, not a disease. A syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur together and characterise a particular disease or condition.The most common form of dementia is Alzheimer's disease, which accounts for 60-80% of cases. Other forms of dementia include vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, and dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB).
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HCPCS were originally developed for use in coding services, such as durable medical equipment for patients In medical offices, there is usually a(n) plan to help minimize the risk of fraud by discovering and correcting billing problems When a doctor bills for a comprehensive metabolic panel and a quantitative glucose test, which is usually included in one, the metabolic panel they are separately for services that are bundled in a single procedure In CPT, a plus sign (+) is used to indicate What are national codes issued by CMS and covers supplies and durable medical equipmer are When a code description has changed since the last revision of the CPT manual, which sy would be present? Which symbol appears next to new codes since the last CPT revision?
The triangle symbol is present when a code description has changed since the last revision of the CPT manual. The circle symbol appears next to new codes since the last CPT revision.
CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology and 150 is a code for a service.
HCPCS were originally developed for use in coding services, such as durable medical equipment for patients In medical offices, there is usually a compliance plan to help minimize the risk of fraud by discovering and correcting billing problems.
When a doctor bills for a comprehensive metabolic panel and a quantitative glucose test, which is usually included in one, the metabolic panel they are separately for services that are bundled in a single procedure.
In CPT, a plus sign (+) is used to indicate add-on codes.
HCPCS Level II codes are national codes issued by CMS and covers supplies and durable medical equipment.
The triangle symbol is present when a code description has changed since the last revision of the CPT manual.
The circle symbol appears next to new codes since the last CPT revision.
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(MINIMUM 400 WORDS AND PLEASE DON'T POST PICTURES FOR ANSWER THANK YOU)
There is a major difference between a physician with a private practice and a physician working for a group health care system. For the following questions provide a short paragraph in response.
1. Does a physician group practice provide the malpractice insurance or does the physician?
2. If a physician is sued, does the group practice provide an attorney?
3. If a physician decides to leave the group practice, are they still covered under the physician group insurance?
4. Does the group malpractice cover all of the liability if the physician is sued?
5. If the physician is working with a small group of physicians within a practice, is it beneficial for the physician to have extra personal coverage?
(MINIMUM 400 WORDS AND PLEASE DON'T POST PICTURES FOR ANSWER THANK YOU)
In a physician group practice, the group typically provides malpractice insurance and attorney representation for physicians. Coverage may not continue if a physician leaves the group, and it's important to review insurance arrangements.
1. In a physician group practice, malpractice insurance coverage is typically provided by the group itself rather than the individual physician.
The group practice usually purchases a comprehensive malpractice insurance policy that covers all the physicians working within the group.
This approach helps distribute the cost of insurance among the members of the group and ensures consistent coverage for all physicians practicing within the group.
2. When a physician is sued, the group practice typically provides an attorney to represent the physician. The group's malpractice insurance policy usually includes coverage for legal defense costs, which means that the attorney's fees will be covered by the insurance policy.
This provision helps protect the physician's interests and ensures that they have legal representation throughout the legal proceedings.
3. If a physician decides to leave a group practice, their coverage under the physician group insurance may not continue. The specifics can vary depending on the policies of the group and the insurance provider.
In some cases, the physician may be able to secure their own individual malpractice insurance coverage upon leaving the group. It's important for physicians considering leaving a group practice to carefully review their insurance arrangements and consult with an insurance professional to ensure uninterrupted coverage.
4. The group malpractice insurance typically covers the liability of the physician if they are sued, up to the policy limits. However, it's important to note that there may be certain exceptions or limitations outlined in the insurance policy.
Physicians should familiarize themselves with the details of the group's malpractice insurance coverage to understand the extent of their protection.
It's also worth considering additional personal coverage to address any potential gaps in coverage and provide extra protection against liability.
5. Working with a small group of physicians within a practice can provide some benefits in terms of shared resources and potentially lower insurance costs.
However, it's still advisable for physicians to consider having extra personal coverage, known as "tail coverage" or "excess coverage," in addition to group malpractice insurance.
This additional coverage can provide an extra layer of protection for the physician in case their liability exceeds the limits of the group policy or in situations where the group policy does not cover certain scenarios.
It offers peace of mind and ensures that the physician has sufficient coverage tailored to their individual needs and circumstances. Consulting with an insurance professional can help determine the appropriate level of personal coverage for a physician working within a small group practice.
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Physical assessment.
1. Introduction procedures including AIDET
2. Head-to-toe physical assessment
3. Safety checks and procedures before leaving the patient
A physical assessment is a critical component of healthcare to evaluate and monitor the patient's health status. The assessment provides an opportunity for the healthcare provider to gather information about the patient's health, identify potential risks, and take appropriate measures to improve their overall health.
The assessment process involves several steps that must be followed to ensure comprehensive evaluation of the patient's health. The following discussion highlights the critical components of a physical assessment, including introduction procedures, head-to-toe assessment, and safety checks
The AIDET framework is an effective tool to use when introducing oneself to a patient. The framework includes the following:
A - Acknowledge the patientI - Introduce oneself
D - Duration
E - Explanation
T - Thank you
Head-to-toe physical assessment: The head-to-toe physical assessment is a comprehensive examination of the patient's body from head to toe. This assessment provides an opportunity for the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's overall health status, identify potential risks, and make appropriate recommendations. The head-to-toe assessment should include vital signs, skin, head and neck, chest, cardiovascular system, abdominal, musculoskeletal, and neurological systems.
Safety checks and procedures before leaving the patient: Safety checks and procedures are essential before leaving the patient to ensure their safety and well-being. These checks include ensuring that the patient is safe, comfortable, and their immediate needs are met. It is also essential to document the patient's response to the assessment, including vital signs and other critical information. If there are any significant concerns identified, it is essential to escalate the matter to the appropriate authority for further investigation and management.
In conclusion, the physical assessment is an essential component of healthcare to evaluate and monitor the patient's health status. It is essential to follow the procedures, including introduction procedures, head-to-toe assessment, and safety checks, to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management of the patient.
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In this episode, the student is the manager of the Social Services Department. As part of the ethics committee for a rural 18-bed hospital, the CEO and CFO ask the student to contribute to an initial discussion on the decision to continue having labor and delivery in the hospital. The student knows that historically in this community, women seek late prenatal care. In discussions with the committee, the student learns that the Ob/Gyn has no back-up specialty coverage, that the family practitioner really does not want to do obstetric services (late nights, insurance...), and that the community loves the service. Based on this information, the student must make a recommendation whether to continue labor and delivery services at the hospital.
To make a recommendation, the student must weigh the community's desire for the service against the potential risks associated with limited coverage and provider reluctance.
Based on the information provided, the student faces a complex decision regarding the labor and delivery services. Several factors need to be considered. Firstly, the community's preference for the service indicates a strong demand and a desire for local access to obstetric care.
This highlights the importance of considering the needs and preferences of the community members, especially if there are limited alternatives nearby.
However, the lack of back-up specialty coverage for the Ob/Gyn and the family practitioner's unwillingness to provide obstetric services pose significant challenges. The absence of back-up coverage can potentially compromise patient safety and raise concerns about emergency situations.
The reluctance of the family practitioner, influenced by factors like late nights and insurance, may impact the quality and continuity of care provided.
To make a recommendation, the student must weigh the community's desire for the service against the potential risks associated with limited coverage and provider reluctance.
It may be necessary to explore alternatives, such as collaborating with neighboring hospitals or recruiting additional healthcare professionals to ensure safe and sustainable obstetric care.
The decision should prioritize patient safety, access to care, and the long-term viability of the labor and delivery services within the given resource constraints.
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1.) How do you calculate the DRI value ? (Reference)
2.) How were the carbohydrate calories calculated?
(Reference)
3.) Why a specific food would be a good addition?
(Reference)
The specific food is useful due to its supplement substance, potential well-being benefits, and capacity to improve dietary assortment.
How to determine the DRI value1.) The DRI (Dietary Reference Intake) values are calculated by a board of specialists from the National Institute of Sciences. They survey the logical investigations accessible on different supplements and set up the prescribed everyday intake levels based on age, sex, life organization, and particular well-being conditions.
These values take into consideration the normal necessities of people to anticipate insufficiency or poisonous quality. The DRI values incorporate a few reference values, such as the Prescribed Dietary Remittance (RDA) and Satisfactory Intake (AI), which are utilized to set up supplement objectives for the populace.
Reference: National Foundations. (2019). Dietary Reference Immaterial (DRIs): Prescribed Dietary Stipends and Satisfactory Immaterial, Vitamins.
2.) Carbohydrate calories are calculated based on the macronutrient composition of the food thing. Carbohydrates give 4 calories per gram, so the whole carbohydrate substance is duplicated by 4 to decide the number of calories coming from carbohydrates.
This calculation expects that all carbohydrates within the nourishment are processed and retained by the body, giving vitality. In any case, it's imperative to note that not all carbohydrates are break even with, and a few may have diverse impacts on blood sugar levels and in general well-being.
Reference: Joined together States Office of Horticulture. (2021). Dietary Rules for Americans, 2020-2025.
3.) A specific food would be a great expansion to a diet for a few reasons. Firstly, it may be wealthy in basic supplements such as vitamins, minerals, or fiber that are missing within the current eat less. Counting such food can offer assistance to meet the prescribed day-by-day immaterial for these supplements, advancing in general well-being and anticipating insufficiencies.
Besides, food might offer particular health benefits due to its bioactive compounds or phytochemicals. For illustration, natural products and vegetables contain cancer prevention agents that can secure against persistent infections.
Also, food can be a great expansion on the off chance that it makes a difference in expanding the slim down, and includes assortment, making suppers more pleasant and maintainable.
Reference: Joined together States Office of Agribusiness. (2021). Dietary Rules for Americans, 2020-2025.
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On which of the following prepared medication should the nurse expect to see the label "FOR IV USE ONLY: FATAL IF GIVEN ANY OTHER ROUTE'? A. Paclitaxel B. Vincristine C. Rituximab D. Etoposide
The nurse should expect to see the label "FOR IV USE ONLY: FATAL IF GIVEN ANY OTHER ROUTE" on the prepared medication paclitaxel. The correct answer is option A.
Paclitaxel is an anticancer chemotherapy medication that falls under the category of taxanes. It is used in the treatment of various types of cancer, such as breast, ovarian, and lung cancer. It works by stopping cancer cells from dividing and growing.
Paclitaxel is given intravenously (IV) over a period of time. It should be administered slowly over a period of several hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. When given through other routes such as orally or intrathecally, it can be lethal to the patient.
Intravenous administration is the safest and most effective route of administering the drug. Paclitaxel can cause various side effects, including nausea, vomiting, hair loss, anemia, low blood cell counts, and nerve damage.
Therefore, it is essential to follow the administration guidelines to avoid the occurrence of adverse reactions.
In conclusion, the nurse should expect to see the label "FOR IV USE ONLY: FATAL IF GIVEN ANY OTHER ROUTE" on the prepared medication paclitaxel as it can be lethal to the patient when given through other routes such as orally or intrathecally. The correct answer is option A. paclitaxel
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The nurse sees erythema and edema at the site of a surgical incision that is two weeks old. The skin around the wound feels hot to the touch. These are signs of appropriate wound healing. True False
The nurse sees erythema and edema at the site of a surgical incision that is two weeks old. The skin around the wound feels hot to the touch. These are signs of appropriate wound healing. - False
The two-week-old surgical incision site's erythema, edema, and elevated skin temperature are not markers of proper wound healing. Typically, these symptoms point to an inflammatory reaction or a potential infection. Inflammation represents an initial stage of normal wound-healing process, and it typically starts within the first few days following an injury or surgery.
By two weeks, however, the inflammation ought to have subsided and the wound ought to be moving towards the remodelling stages of healing. After two weeks, the appearance of prolonged erythema, edoema, and elevated skin temperature at the incision site may be indicative of an infection or an ongoing inflammatory process.
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Question 19 Michael, a construction worker, was recently diagnosed with a chronic illness that requires him to undergo regular medical tests and make regular visits to the doctor. He is worried that his provincial medical insurance might stop coverage at a certain point in time. Which principle of medicare assures him of full coverage? Comprehensiveness Universality 1 pts Accessibility Portability 1 pts
The principle of universality in medicare assures Michael, a construction worker recently diagnosed with a chronic illness, that he will receive full coverage for his medical tests and doctor visits without any limitations or exclusions. Universality ensures that healthcare coverage is provided to all residents regardless of their employment, income, or pre-existing conditions.
The principle of medicare that assures Michael, the construction worker, of full coverage for his chronic illness is "Universality."
Universality refers to the idea that healthcare coverage is provided to all residents of a particular province or country, regardless of their income, employment status, or pre-existing conditions.
Under this principle, everyone is entitled to receive the necessary medical services and treatments they require.
In Michael's case, being diagnosed with a chronic illness makes him eligible for continued medical coverage under the provincial medical insurance.
The universality principle ensures that he will not be denied coverage or have it discontinued due to his health condition.
Regardless of his occupation as a construction worker, he has the right to access comprehensive healthcare services, including regular medical tests and visits to the doctor, without any financial barriers.
It is important to note that universality does not guarantee coverage for all types of medical services, as different provinces or countries may have variations in the scope of covered services.
However, it ensures that essential healthcare needs, including the treatment and management of chronic illnesses, are covered for all eligible individuals within the healthcare system.
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3 patients come into the ED.
18 month old with dehydration.
22 year old in need of a CT scan with contrast due to suspected pancreatitis.
45 year old in need of IV potassium
Which PIV gauges would you place in these patients?
What category of fluids will be given to the 18 month old? (hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic)
The patient receiving IV potassium is complaining of pain.
What nursing interventions can you implement for this?
For the 18-month-old with dehydration, a small gauge peripheral intravenous (PIV) catheter would be appropriate.
The 22-year-old in need of a CT scan with contrast would require a larger gauge PIV catheter.
The 45-year-old in need of IV potassium may also require a larger gauge PIV catheter.
The 18-month-old would typically receive isotonic fluids for rehydration.
The patient experiencing pain from IV potassium administration may benefit from interventions such as assessing the site for infiltration, adjusting the infusion rate, applying warm compresses, or administering pain medication as ordered.
The 18-month-old with dehydration would generally require a small gauge PIV catheter, usually around 24 or 22 gauge, as their veins are small and fragile. The smaller size minimizes discomfort and the risk of complications.
The 22-year-old in need of a CT scan with contrast may require a larger gauge PIV catheter, typically 18 or 20 gauge. This size allows for the administration of contrast agents efficiently.
The 45-year-old in need of IV potassium might also require a larger gauge PIV catheter to accommodate the potassium solution. A 20 or 22 gauge catheter may be appropriate to facilitate the infusion.
For the 18-month-old with dehydration, isotonic fluids would typically be given. Isotonic fluids have a similar concentration of solutes as blood and help to restore electrolyte balance.
If a patient receiving IV potassium complains of pain, nursing interventions can include assessing the IV site for signs of infiltration or extravasation, adjusting the infusion rate to prevent rapid administration, applying warm compresses to dilate the veins and improve blood flow, and administering pain medication as ordered by the healthcare provider.
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the client living at the long-term care home is to be bathed
this evening. as per the care plan, the client is not allowed to
shower and is totally dependent. how will you provide a complete
bed bath?
When a client living in a long-term care home is not allowed to shower and is completely dependent, a complete bed bath should be given as per the care plan. The bed bath should be provided following the necessary hygiene protocol in order to avoid infection.
The complete bed bath should start with washing the face and progress from head to toe. Firstly, gather all the necessary equipment that is needed. The equipment will include basin, warm water, soap, towel, clean linens, and a change of clothes.Once the equipment is collected, make sure to ensure the client's privacy is maintained at all times. Use the water and soap to wet the washcloth. Then start cleaning the client's eyes, ears, nose, and face gently, taking care not to use too much water.
Once the face is washed, clean the neck and chest. Then move down the arms, starting with the upper arms and shoulders, before washing the lower arms and hands. Next, the back and buttocks should be washed, moving down to the legs, with attention to all the folds and crevices, including the genitals. Finally, the feet are washed. To maintain the dignity of the client, the body should be covered with a towel or sheet except for the area being washed. To ensure that the client is comfortable, it is advisable to make sure they are adequately covered after the bath is complete.
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500ml normal saline to run at is 3D gtts/mL. How many atts/min ?
The number of atts/min is 750 atts/min. Therefore, the answer to the question is 750 atts/min.
Given that500 ml normal saline to run at is 3D gtts/mL
We are to find the atts/min.To find the atts/min, we will convert the volume from ml to drops first as shown below;1 ml = 3D gtts/ 3 ml = 3*3D gtts = 9D gtts
Now, the 500 ml is converted to drops as follows;500 ml = 500 * 9D gtts = 4500D gtts/min
But we have not yet found the answer to our question; we are still finding atts/min. Let us first find the atts/min by converting the gtts to atts as shown below;1 atts = 6 gtts
Therefore, the number of atts/min is;4500/6 = 750 atts/min
Therefore, the answer to the question is 750 atts/min.
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Order: Coumadin 7.5 mg
Available: 5mg/tablet
a. 1 1/2 tablets
b. 1/2 tablets
c. 2 tablets
d. 1 tablets
Using the available 5 mg tablets, complete the Coumadin 7.5 mg order: a. 1 1/2 tablets:
Coumadin is an anticoagulant medicine that is used to reduce the formation of blood clots. Coumadin is a medication used to treat blood clots and is used to prevent new clots from forming in the body. Coumadin, which is also known as warfarin, belongs to a class of medications known as anticoagulants that work by thinning the blood.
The order is Coumadin 7.5 mg, and the available medication is 5mg per tablet. Therefore, we will calculate the number of tablets as follows:
If one tablet contains 5 mg, we will divide 7.5 mg by 5 mg to get the number of tablets required:
7.5 mg/5 mg = 1.5 tablets
Hence, the answer is 1 1/2 tablets. Option (a) is the correct answer.
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Apoptotic bodies are phagocytized without the process of A fragmentation. B consolidation. C inflammation.D Disintegration.
Apoptosis, a programmed cell death process, occurs naturally during the development, aging, and functioning of multicellular organisms. When a cell undergoes apoptosis, it forms apoptotic bodies, small membrane-bound structures. The correct answer is option C. inflammation.
These bodies are subsequently engulfed by other cells through phagocytosis, without triggering inflammation or negative immune responses.
Inflammation, on the other hand, is the immune system's response to injury or infection.
It is characterized by redness, swelling, warmth, and pain, and involves the release of immune cell chemicals, dilation of blood vessels, and an immune response activation.
Thus, inflammation is not a part of the phagocytosis process of apoptotic bodies.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C. inflammation.
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Apoptotic bodies are phagocytized without the process of inflammation. Apoptotic bodies are considered to be a significant phenomenon of programmed cell death or apoptosis.
These bodies result from the apoptosis of a cell. They are defined as small, membrane-bound vesicles with fragments of cytoplasmic organelles and/or portions of the nucleus. Apoptotic bodies are known to contain several different cellular constituents, such as DNA, RNA, proteins, and various lipids. Apoptotic bodies are responsible for the clearance of cells dying through programmed cell death. The phagocytosis of these cells and their breakdown products by phagocytes plays a vital role in tissue homeostasis.
The phagocytosis of apoptotic cells is a process that involves the interaction between apoptotic cells and phagocytes. It's a process that doesn't involve inflammation. When a cell undergoes apoptosis, it doesn't cause the inflammation that would occur in necrosis. The apoptotic cell is then engulfed by macrophages or other phagocytic cells in the surrounding tissue without inflammation. Once the apoptotic bodies are phagocytosed, they undergo intracellular digestion within the phagocytes.
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Compare Medicare and Medicaid. Describe each program in a minimum of 200 words for each.
Medicare and Medicaid are two healthcare programs that serve different populations in the United States. Medicare is a federal health insurance program that covers people who are 65 years or older, some younger people with disabilities, and those with End-Stage Renal Disease.
Meanwhile, Medicaid is a jointly funded, federal-state health insurance program that provides assistance to low-income individuals and families, pregnant women, and children. Here are some more details about each program:
Medicare:
Medicare is the national health insurance program administered by the United States federal government. It is designed to help cover the cost of medical care for people over the age of 65, those with End-Stage Renal Disease, and some younger individuals with disabilities. There are four parts of Medicare:
Part A: Covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and home health care.
Part B: Covers outpatient care, such as doctor visits, preventive services, and medical equipment.
Part C: Also known as Medicare Advantage, allows beneficiaries to receive their Medicare benefits through private health insurance plans.
Part D: Covers prescription drug costs.
Medicaid:
Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides health coverage for low-income individuals and families. The program is funded by both the federal government and state governments, and the eligibility requirements and benefits vary from state to state. In general, Medicaid provides coverage for:
Inpatient hospital care
Outpatient hospital care
Doctor visits
Lab and x-ray services
Home health care
Preventive care
Prescription drugs
Comparing the two programs:
The main difference between Medicare and Medicaid is the populations they serve. Medicare serves older adults and people with disabilities, while Medicaid serves low-income individuals and families. Additionally, Medicare is a federally funded program, while Medicaid is jointly funded by the federal government and state governments. Medicaid offers more comprehensive coverage than Medicare, including long-term care, dental care, and vision care, which are not covered by Medicare. However, Medicare offers more flexibility in choosing providers and healthcare services.
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The provider prescribed nitroglycerin 5 mcg/min for a patient experiencing chest pain. The pharmacy sent up a bag of nitroglycerin 50 mg in 250 mL D5W. At what rate in milliliters per hour should the nitroglycerin be infused? Round to the nearest tenth. Use Desired-Over-Have method to show work.
To calculate the infusion rate of nitroglycerin, we can use the Desired-Over-Have method, which involves dividing the desired rate by the concentration available.
Desired rate: 5 mcg/min
Concentration available: 50 mg in 250 mL D5W
Step 1: Convert the desired rate to the same units as the concentration available (mg/min).
1 mg = 1000 mcg
Desired rate = 5 mcg/min × (1 mg/1000 mcg) = 0.005 mg/min
Step 2: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/h.
Infusion rate (mL/h) = Desired rate (mg/min) / Concentration (mg/mL)
Since the concentration is given in mg per 250 mL, we divide the desired rate by the concentration per mL and then multiply by 250 to convert from mL/min to mL/h.
Infusion rate (mL/h) = (0.005 mg/min) / (50 mg/250 mL) × 250
Infusion rate = 25 mL/h
Therefore, the nitroglycerin should be infused at a rate of 25 mL/h (rounded to the nearest tenth).
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1. An IV solution of 500 mL of NS must infuse in 5 hours. What is the flow rate in mL/h? 2. An IV is infusing at 50 ml/h. How long will it take for 225 mL to infuse? 3. An IV is infusing at 40 ml/h. How many mL will infuse in 2 hours and 20 minutes? 4. An intravenous solution of D3/W is infusing at a flow rate of 30 gtt/min. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in ml/h? 5. An infusion of 1,000 mL of NS must infuse in 10 hours. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL. Find the flow rate in gtt/min. 6. Order: D5W 1,000 mL IV infuse in 12 hours. After 7 hours, 600 mL are left in the bag (LIB). Recalculate the flow rate so that the infusion will fin- ish on time. 7. Order: For every 100 mL of urine output, replace with 60 mL of water via PEG tube q6h. The patient's urinary output is 500 mL. What is the neces- sary replacement volume?
Following are the solutions:
1. Flow rate = 100 mL/h
2. Time = 4.5 hours
3. Volume = 93.2 mL
4. Flow rate = 450 mL/h
5. Flow rate = 200 gtt/min
6. Flow rate = 80 mL/h
7. Replacement volume = 300 mL
1. To calculate the flow rate in mL/h, divide the volume (500 mL) by the time (5 hours):
Flow rate = Volume / Time
Flow rate = 500 mL / 5 hours
Flow rate = 100 mL/h
2. To calculate the time needed for 225 mL to infuse at a rate of 50 mL/h:
Time = Volume / Flow rate
Time = 225 mL / 50 mL/h
Time = 4.5 hours
3. To calculate the volume that will infuse in 2 hours and 20 minutes (or 2.33 hours) at a rate of 40 mL/h:
Volume = Flow rate * Time
Volume = 40 mL/h * 2.33 hours
Volume = 93.2 mL
4. To calculate the flow rate in mL/h from a flow rate of 30 gtt/min with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL:
Flow rate (mL/h) = Flow rate (gtt/min) * Drop factor (gtt/mL)
Flow rate (mL/h) = 30 gtt/min * 15 gtt/mL
Flow rate (mL/h) = 450 mL/h
5. To calculate the flow rate in gtt/min for an infusion of 1,000 mL over 10 hours with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL:
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (Volume (mL) / Time (min)) * Drop factor (gtt/mL)
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (1,000 mL / 10 hours) * 20 gtt/mL
Flow rate (gtt/min) = 200 gtt/min
6. To recalculate the flow rate to finish the infusion on time, subtract the volume left in the bag (600 mL) from the total volume (1,000 mL), and divide by the remaining time (5 hours):
Flow rate = (Volume - LIB) / Time
Flow rate = (1,000 mL - 600 mL) / 5 hours
Flow rate = 400 mL / 5 hours
Flow rate = 80 mL/h
7. To calculate the necessary replacement volume for a urinary output of 500 mL with a replacement ratio of 60 mL water for every 100 mL urine:
Replacement volume = (Urinary output / 100 mL) * Replacement ratio
Replacement volume = (500 mL / 100 mL) * 60 mL
Replacement volume = 300 mL
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1. What changes have you seen (if you are a practicing nurse) or have you heard about (if you are a nursing student with no practice experience) in clinical nursing practice within the past 2 years? How do these changes impact your ability to provide safe, effective nursing care to patients and families?
2. What areas of professional nursing practice do you see expanding based on current changes to government funding of health care?
3. What has been your personal experience as a patient or family member of a patient with the current changes in hospital care?
4. What changes in professional practice do you foresee occurring as a result of increased governmental influences in health care delivery?
5. What strategies may be helpful for nurses to cope with current and future changes in health care delivery? Design a plan for helping current and future professional nurses. Determine the feasibility of this plan.
Changes seen or heard in clinical nursing practice within the past 2 years include the use of new technologies to improve patient outcomes, changes in health care policies and regulations, and increased emphasis on interprofessional collaboration.
1. These changes have impacted the ability of nurses to provide safe and effective care by requiring nurses to continuously update their skills and knowledge. Nurses must also be able to work closely with other health care professionals to provide coordinated care to patients.
2. Areas of professional nursing practice that are expanding based on current changes to government funding of health care include care coordination, population health management, and patient education. These areas are all essential to improving patient outcomes and reducing health care costs.
3. Personal experiences as a patient or family member of a patient with the current changes in hospital care may vary, but many people report feeling that the quality of care has improved due to the increased emphasis on patient safety and satisfaction.
4. Changes in professional practice that may occur as a result of increased governmental influences in health care delivery include increased emphasis on evidence-based practice, improved patient safety, and greater accountability for health care outcomes.
5. Strategies that may be helpful for nurses to cope with current and future changes in health care delivery include staying up-to-date with the latest research and technologies, building strong relationships with other health care professionals, and participating in continuing education programs. A plan for helping current and future professional nurses might include a mentoring program that pairs experienced nurses with new graduates or students. The feasibility of this plan would depend on the availability of experienced nurses to participate in the program and the resources needed to support the program.
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Changes seen or heard in clinical nursing practice within the past 2 years include the use of new technologies to improve patient outcomes, changes in health care policies and regulations, and increased emphasis on interprofessional collaboration.
1. These changes have impacted the ability of nurses to provide safe and effective care by requiring nurses to continuously update their skills and knowledge. Nurses must also be able to work closely with other health care professionals to provide coordinated care to patients.
2. Areas of professional nursing practice that are expanding based on current changes to government funding of health care include care coordination, population health management, and patient education. These areas are all essential to improving patient outcomes and reducing health care costs.
3. Personal experiences as a patient or family member of a patient with the current changes in hospital care may vary, but many people report feeling that the quality of care has improved due to the increased emphasis on patient safety and satisfaction.
4. Changes in professional practice that may occur as a result of increased governmental influences in health care delivery include increased emphasis on evidence-based practice, improved patient safety, and greater accountability for health care outcomes.
5. Strategies that may be helpful for nurses to cope with current and future changes in health care delivery include staying up-to-date with the latest research and technologies, building strong relationships with other health care professionals, and participating in continuing education programs. A plan for helping current and future professional nurses might include a mentoring program that pairs experienced nurses with new graduates or students. The feasibility of this plan would depend on the availability of experienced nurses to participate in the program and the resources needed to support the program.
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Students will list 5 items that you will find on a Patient
Information Form. Then you will explain, in your own words, why the
item is important.
You would need to list;
Name and Contact InformationDate of Birth and AgeMedical HistoryInsurance and Financial InformationEmergency Contact InformationPatients information form;The patient's name and contact details guarantee accurate identification and avenues for communication. The patient's individual demands at various phases of life can be better met by modifying healthcare interventions based on age and date of birth.
The patient's medical history sheds light on their health conditions, allowing for a correct diagnosis, the right kind of treatment, and the avoidance of any dangers or complications. Smooth administrative operations, billing processes, and adherence to insurance standards are all supported by financial and insurance information. Last but not least, emergency contact information enables medical professionals to get in touch with a reliable individual who can offer crucial information or support in time of need.
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Case Study Assignment Content Part 1. Choose any 3 drugs of any system we covered this class; for each drug. list its indication and adverse/side effects. Part 2. Using the nursing process with your critical thinking and reasoning skills to indicate how you would care for your patient: (CARE PLAN) a. Assess the patient on these drugs b. Give 2 nursing diagnosis for each drug c. Each nursing diagnosis-2 outcomes d. Each outcome-3 intervention I e. Give ways to implement nursing care to ensure continuity of care for the patient on these drugs f. Evaluate the effectiveness of your nursing care and modify as needed
Selecting three drugs, providing their indications and adverse/side effects, and then utilizing the nursing process to develop a comprehensive care plan for a patient receiving these drugs. The care plan includes assessing the patient, identifying nursing diagnoses, establishing outcomes, implementing interventions, ensuring continuity of care, and evaluating the effectiveness of nursing care provided.
For Part 1 of the assignment, you need to select three drugs from any system covered in your class. For each drug, you should provide its indication, which refers to the specific condition or disease for which the drug is prescribed.
Additionally, you need to list the adverse/side effects associated with each drug, which are the unwanted or harmful effects that may occur when taking the medication.
In Part 2, you will use the nursing process to develop a care plan for a patient who is receiving these drugs. This involves assessing the patient's condition, collecting relevant data, and identifying any potential risks or concerns related to the medications.
Based on your assessment, you will then establish two nursing diagnoses for each drug, which are concise statements describing the patient's actual or potential health problems.
For each nursing diagnosis, you will set two outcomes that reflect the desired patient outcomes or goals. These outcomes should be measurable and achievable. Following that, you will develop three interventions for each outcome, which are specific actions or strategies aimed at addressing the nursing diagnoses and achieving the desired outcomes.
To ensure continuity of care, you will need to consider ways to implement nursing care that promotes collaboration, communication, and coordination among healthcare providers. This may involve creating a comprehensive care plan, utilizing standardized protocols, and effectively communicating with the interdisciplinary team.
Finally, you will evaluate the effectiveness of your nursing care by assessing whether the desired outcomes have been achieved. If necessary, you will modify the care plan accordingly to ensure the patient's needs are met and their health is optimized.
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This is for my organization & function of health care services class. The chapter topic is Long-Term Care.
Initial Post
Long Term Care is another real problem. If we cant adequately support regular healthcare, how can
we take care that the baby boomers will need? Discuss: What are the 2 biggest problems that need to be addressed? Are there any first-hand experiences you have seen either as an employee or as a family member of someone in a long-term care facility? Any ideas for solutions?
what are the 2 biggest problems in long-term care?
Long-Term Care (LTC) is the type of care given to those who cannot complete their daily activities without assistance. As the number of older adults requiring long-term care increases, the issue of long-term care is becoming increasingly pressing. Below are the two most significant problems that need to be addressed in long-term care.
Staffing is the first significant challenge that must be addressed in long-term care. There is a significant lack of staff in long-term care facilities, making it difficult for caregivers to provide appropriate care to residents. Nurses and nursing assistants are needed in long-term care facilities, yet there are not enough of them to fill these roles.
The second significant issue in long-term care is the quality of care provided. The quality of care given in long-term care facilities is frequently poor. Patients are frequently treated poorly, and their needs are not met. Poor-quality care can lead to physical, mental, and emotional health problems, which can lead to a decline in the patient's overall health.
First-hand experiences as a family member or employee in a long-term care facility include inadequate staffing, resulting in a lack of assistance for residents. In some cases, a lack of support can cause residents to develop bedsores or to be left in their soiled clothes. Furthermore, families have voiced their dissatisfaction with the lack of personalized care given to their loved ones.
In summary, the staffing shortage and the quality of care given in long-term care facilities are the two significant challenges that must be addressed.
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Ordered: furosemide 120 mg IV push stat On hand: furosemide 10 mg/mL How many milliliters should the patient receive per dose?
Answer:
12 ml
Explanation:
The amount of furosemide needed: 120 / 10 = 12 ml
Transplant Surgeon case. The five are dying. You can save them only if you have the right organ donor. You find one in the form of a patient visiting with a minor illness. You could kill the one patient and save the five patients. What best describes this case? · Five people have a positive right to be assisted while one person has a negative right not to be harmed. · Five people have a positive right to be assisted while one person has a positive right to be assisted. · Five people have negative right not to be harmed while one person has a negative right not to be harmed. Using the categories given by Goodpaster, if Velsicol Chemical Corporation had an obligation to unilaterally modify their labeling of chemicals to promote safe use of the chemicals, then what kind of obligation is this? Qualified 6 Categorical Prima facie According to Goodpaster, what is a "qualified" responsibility? O A responsibility to resolve a moral challenge on its own, without regard to whether others contribute as well 0 A responsibility to try resolve a moral challenge or to participate in the efforts of others in seeking a collaborative resolution. O A responsibility to maximize profits within the constraints of moral custom and the law.
The best option that describes the Transplant Surgeon case is: Five people have a positive right to be assisted while one person has a negative right not to be harmed. The above case in the transplant surgeon case is an example of the 'trolley problem' where there is a conflict between the moral rights of individuals.
The decision the surgeon has to make in this case requires a moral judgment and a weighing up of moral considerations. The Trolley Problem is a thought experiment in ethics that challenges people's moral intuitions and highlights the difficulty in determining the right thing to do in a moral dilemma. The Trolley Problem consists of a series of scenarios in which you have to decide whether to sacrifice one person to save several others, or to do nothing and let them all die.
According to the utilitarian approach, the choice is to save five people rather than one. However, this approach contradicts the moral theory that one should not harm others. According to Goodpaster, a "qualified" responsibility is a responsibility to try resolve a moral challenge or to participate in the efforts of others in seeking a collaborative resolution. It involves considering what others are doing and how one can contribute to the situation's resolution. It is not a moral obligation to solve the issue on its own, but rather to work with others to address the problem.
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Please use an example to explain secondary active transport in
urine formation.
Secondary active transport plays a crucial role in urine formation, specifically in the reabsorption of certain substances from the renal tubules back into the bloodstream. One example of secondary active transport in urine formation is the reabsorption of glucose.
In the process of urine formation, the kidneys are responsible for filtering waste products from the bloodstream and reabsorbing essential substances. Secondary active transport is involved in the reabsorption of glucose in the renal tubules as an example.
When glucose is filtered by the glomerulus, it enters the renal tubules. However, the glucose concentration in the tubules is lower than in the blood. To reabsorb glucose back into the bloodstream, secondary active transport mechanisms come into play. Sodium ions (Na+) are actively transported out of the tubular cells into the interstitial fluid, creating a low sodium concentration within the cells.
A sodium-glucose symporter protein on the apical membrane of the tubular cells uses the energy stored in the sodium concentration gradient to transport glucose molecules against their concentration gradient. As sodium ions move from high to low concentration, they drag glucose molecules with them into the tubular cells.
Once inside the tubular cells, glucose is transported out into the interstitial fluid through glucose transporters on the basolateral membrane. From there, glucose diffuses into the bloodstream through capillaries.
This process of secondary active transport allows the reabsorption of glucose from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, ensuring that valuable nutrients are not lost in the urine.
Secondary active transport plays a vital role in various physiological processes, including nutrient absorption, ion transport, and urine formation. Understanding the mechanisms and examples of secondary active transport can provide insights into the intricate workings of cellular transport systems and their significance in maintaining homeostasis.
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please use the keyboard
Maternal and child health is an important public health issue because we have the opportunity to end preventable deaths among all women and children and to greatly improve their health and well-being.
Discus the maternal mortality ratio (definition, statistics, causes)
Explore the challenges and barriers for improving maternal and child health
Maternal mortality ratio refers to the number of women who die as a result of pregnancy or childbirth per 100,000 live births in a given year.
Maternal mortality ratio (MMR) is an important indicator of maternal health, as it is reflective of the quality of health services available to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), MMR refers to the number of women who die as a result of pregnancy or childbirth per 100,000 live births in a given year. Despite global efforts to improve maternal health, MMR remains unacceptably high in many countries, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.
The leading causes of maternal deaths include hemorrhage, infections, unsafe abortions, and hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. Other factors that contribute to maternal mortality include inadequate access to quality maternal health services, poverty, lack of education, and gender inequality.
Improving maternal and child health faces several challenges and barriers such as inadequate funding, poor infrastructure, inadequate number of skilled health workers, and lack of access to quality health services, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Addressing these challenges requires a multifaceted approach, including strengthening health systems, increasing funding for maternal and child health, and addressing social determinants of health.
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A drug that activates a presynaptic autoreceptor will usually:
Presynaptic auto receptors are a type of receptor that is situated on the surface of a nerve cell that controls the release of neurotransmitters. A drug that activates a presynaptic auto receptor will usually decrease the release of the neurotransmitter that is controlled by that auto receptor.
However, this mechanism can differ based on the specific presynaptic auto receptor and the drug that binds to it A drug that activates the presynaptic auto receptor is likely to decrease the release of the neurotransmitter regulated by that auto receptor.
A drug that activates presynaptic α2-adrenoceptors, for example, can inhibit the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, whereas a drug that activates presynaptic α1-adrenoceptors can enhance the release of norepinephrine. The same holds for other presynaptic auto receptors.
To conclude, a drug that activates a presynaptic auto receptor will usually reduce the release of the neurotransmitter that is controlled by that auto receptor, but the effects can vary depending on the particular presynaptic autoreceptor and the drug that binds to it.
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This is the section for you if you were placed into group three. Answer these questions independently. Respond to 2 other students from the 2 other groups regarding their postings.
Sam is a new nurse working the day shift on a busy medical-surgical unit. He asks his UAP to walk the patient in Room 244 while he admits another patient. The patient in Room 244 is a postangioplasty, and it would be the first time he has ambulated since the procedure. Sam tells his UAP to walk the patient only to the nurse's station and back. He also says that if the patient's heart rate rises more than 20 beats/min above the resting rate, the UAP should stop, have the patient sit, and inform Sam immediately.
1. Did Sam appropriately delegate in this scenario? If not, which of the five rights of delegation was not followed? Why?
2. The aide misunderstands Sam's instructions and instead ambulates the patient in Room 234, who is 3 days post-hysterectomy and has been walking in the halls for 2 days. Where did the breakdown in communication occur?
3. Who would be accountable for the outcome if the UAP had ambulated the patient in Room 244 as Sam instructed and the patient was injured during ambulation? Would it be Sam, who directed the UAP to ambulate the patient in Room 244, or the UAP?
4. According to the Nursing Today book note for where would you find information on the right task to delegate?
1. Yes, Sam has appropriately delegated in this scenario. Sam has given clear instructions to the UAP to ambulate the patient only to the nurse's station and back. If the patient's heart rate rises more than 20 beats/min above the resting rate, the UAP should stop, have the patient sit, and inform Sam immediately.
Sam has also instructed the UAP to walk the patient in Room 244 while he admits another patient. Sam has followed all the rights of delegation.
2. The breakdown in communication has occurred because the UAP misunderstood Sam's instructions. The UAP ambulated the patient in Room 234, who is 3 days post-hysterectomy and has been walking in the halls for 2 days. Sam had instructed to ambulate the patient in Room 244, but the UAP ambulated the patient in Room 234.
3. The UAP would be accountable for the outcome if he had ambulated the patient in Room 244 as Sam instructed, and the patient was injured during ambulation. The UAP would be accountable because he misunderstood Sam's instructions, and he has not followed the instructions properly. The UAP should follow the instructions given by the RN or the healthcare provider and provide quality care to the patient.
4. Information on the right task to delegate can be found in the Nursing Today book note for delegation. According to the Nursing Today book note, delegating the right task to the right person is essential for providing quality care to the patient. A nurse should delegate the task that matches the education, training, and experience of the UAP. The nurse should also consider the complexity and potential risk associated with the task while delegating. The nurse should delegate the task according to the state law and organizational policy.
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Question 16 (1.2 points) A nurse is caring for a female patient with end-stage liver failure. The children of the patient inform the nurse that their mother has advance directives. What is the purpose of this document? To determine how the patient's belongings and financial assets will be distributed once the patient dies. To specify the treatment measures that the patient does and doesn't want. To allow the patient to be a "slow code". To prevent the patient from dying in the hospital. 12 15 ww 18 21 24 Question 17 (1.2 points) A healthcare provider caring for a patient with a non-curable, terminal disease is hesitant to approach the subject of end-ofylife care with the patient and family. Which of the following could be reasons why the provider is hesitant to start this discussion? A nurse is the only healthcare team member qualified to initiate this conversation. The provider is uncomfortable and may not have the experience to facilitate an end-of-life discussion. The provider feels adequately prepared and educated on approaching end-of-life discussions, but is waiting for the family to facilitate the discussions with the patient. O It is always up to the patient to initiate these conversations.
Advance directives are legal documents used to explain your wishes in the event that you are unable to communicate them. And, In some cases, they may not be confident in initiating such a conversation because of the complexity of the subject matter.
Question 16: The purpose of an Advance directives document is to specify the treatment measures that the patient does and doesn't want. Advance directives are legal documents used to explain your wishes in the event that you are unable to communicate them. This document outlines what type of medical treatment the patient wants to receive and what type of medical treatment the patient does not want to receive in the event of incapacitation, vegetative state, or terminal illness. It can also describe what end-of-life care the patient wants to receive, including palliative care and hospice care.
Question 17: The healthcare provider is hesitant to start the end-of-life care discussion with the patient and family because the provider is uncomfortable and may not have the experience to facilitate an end-of-life discussion. The provider may be afraid of offending the patient or family by talking about the end of their life. They may also feel inadequate or inexperienced in their communication skills with patients and their families. In some cases, they may not be confident in initiating such a conversation because of the complexity of the subject matter.
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Connor Smith was admitted at 17 days of age with a high temperature. Connor also has an atrial septal heart defect and will be followed up with cardiology after discharge. A cause of the temperature was not found and the physician listed a final diagnosis of fever. provide the correct ICD 10 codes.
The correct ICD-10 codes for the scenario are as follows:
R50.9 for the fever Q21.1 for the atrial septal defectAtrial septal defect is a congenital heart disease that affects the atrial septum. It is common in children but may not be diagnosed until adulthood. It is classified according to the location of the hole and can be either ostium primum, ostium secundum, or sinus venosus. The symptoms may not show up until later in life
Symptoms:
breathingpalpitationsfatigueleg swellingA high temperature is represented by R50.9 in ICD-10. This code is used for unspecified fever. It is a medical condition that causes an increase in body temperature, above the normal range. It is a symptom of an underlying condition, rather than a disease on its own.
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